FREE FAITH, EXPRESSION AND THOUGHT Forum Index -> The Qur'an

Hello, Sound Doctrine

Here is the response to your post at Topix:

Sound Doctrine wrote:

"Convince me Allah is no confused here;

Verse 4:3 is an example of how the Quran fails miserably to deliver the message. Read this:‘4: 3. And if you fear that you shall not be able to deal justly with the orphans, then marry women of your choice, two or three, or four…’ the verse starts talking about the sin of being unjust to the orphans. Having read that, one would expect to read about some kind of penalty or at least a warning to deter Muslims from committing that sin, but the Quran’s solution is to ask men marry up to four women!

Why polygamy has become an answer to the sin of being unjust to the orphans! What is the relation between this and that? Seeking the help of the interpretation books (tafseer) highlights the state of confusion of the Muslim scholars as reflected by their hard struggle to provide satisfactory theories that explain the bizarre association between polygamy and being unjust to the orphans."

In that section, Qur'aan is not talking about little orphan babies.  Laughing This is something which Jesus failed to do as he was only busy talking about himself and his father.

It happened frequently that the powerful men would grab the wealth, property and the family of the deceased and were not fair and kind to the orphans and treated them unjustly. A man could have plenty of wives, including the orphan girls.

So, Here Qur'aan is telling the men to be just, honest and sincere to the girls they took and tells them that if they cannot be just after taking the girls and women, they should go and marry other women and comes in the instruction to marry a maximum of four, if they could be just to all the four.

This restricted polygamy to four, say down from twenty plus of the time in which they lived.  Laughing

So, the message is clear. If you want to marry two to four, make sure that you can be kind, honest and sincere to all equally.

Thus you will see that there is no confusion and the message is quite clear.

This should help remove your confusion.


Sound Doctrine wrote:

"bmz here, get some wisdon;

Explain this contradiction straight fom Allah;

First the Quran says it is a cear message,

Yet, their are verses that no one can know or understand.

If any person with sanity receives a 'clear' message that reads H. M. h/she would reject it but Muslims accept it and consider it a miracle! As a matter of fact, the above two letters make the first verse of some suras in the Quran like sura 44. The interpretation books refer to this verse as a miracle! Muslim scholars say that nobody knows the meaning of the verse except Allah, which raises the question of why send a message that cannot be understood by the receiver? The irony is that the very next verse in sura 44 (i.e. 44:2) says "the clear book"! Muslims have been reading such verses for centuries without making any sense of them, their only response is to say with amazement: subhan allah!

The use of strange words does not stop at using random letters; the Quran did actually incorporate strange or foreign words in a similar fashion to the practice of the black magicians. If we refer to the interpretations books to find the meanings for words like ababil(105:3), sijjeel (105:4), ghesleen (69:36) and dozens others we find that they do not agree to a clear meaning, which indicates that such words had no clear meanings to the early Arabs. Mohammed probably used them just to make an impression. The Arab black magicians are known to use foreign or distorted words or even coin new ones that have no meaning at all other than making an impression in the minds of their stupid audience.
I would rate it as a good post from you and I am writing this answer with my Muslim brothers and sisters in mind, who will find this post informative on a serious subject."

I will tell you why those letters are used in Qur'aan and what do they signify.

First, you must take a look at the name Jesus which is the most ridiculous way of calling the man. If you met Jesus today and called him Jesus, he would just ignore you and would not even register that you called him.

Did the men, who wrote the gospels and the NT papers, write the man's name exactly as Jesus? Where did this name come from? It is a corruption of the man's name Yeshua or Yashua.

I am sure you know the alphabets of Hebrew, Aleph, Bait, Ha, Ya, Lamed, Mim, Aiyn, etc. Arabic also has exactly the same letters which are pronounced very closely.

Now, no Scripture came in the Greek language which was a language of Pagans. And this language ruined the beauty of original scriptures.

You know very well when Joseph asked Pilate,"Can I take his Soma?" and Pilate answered, "Yes, you can take his Ptoma." lol! That is what Greek did.

By mentioning those letters like Ha Mim, Qur'aan is pointing to the Hebrew Scriptures which have the most truth in them and Qur'aan connects back to Torah and Hebrew.

In other words, Qur'aan does not mention the Greek alphabets and does not even talk about the Greek language which messed up the Torah's clear message, confounded ignorants and the confused ones so much that they turned a man into God.

Hope this helped.


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